• Pseudoplatanus22 [he/him]
    ·
    3 years ago

    I guess it's the Ottoman influence, perhaps? They were half-occupied by the Ottomans for several centuries. Otherwise, they are completely unrelated languages.

    • infuziSporg [e/em/eir]
      ·
      3 years ago

      Pronouns tend to be some of the most durable parts of a language, and the Ottomans didn't have much contact until the 1400s. I would say it's more likely similar patterns of speech traded between Uralic and Turkic-speaking peoples in north-central Eurasia.