I've taken shrooms a couple times recently (2g doses) with incredibly minimal effects. I know the shrooms are potent, two friends started tripping at half that dose. I know lamictal blocks dissociative states does that mean it blocks the ability to trip too?
Bump for curiosity. From my googling there were a couple of anecdotal accounts of reduced efficacy of psychedelics on lamictal, but nothing substantive. What i gleaned from wikipedia the pharmacology of lamictal seems to operate on significantly different mechanisms from psychedelics (sodium channel blockage w lamictal vs seratonin receptor agonism).
From wikipedia:
Of which Serotonin 5-HT2A receptors are a subclass - the receptors acted upon by psychedelics. So at the very least there doesnt seem to be a direct interaction in terms of receptors and youre probably not at risk of seratonin syndrome like you would be on SSRIs.
So thats all ive got - i wasnt able to find any abstracts on the topic with a quick google search. Hopefully a comrade with an actual background in pharmacology can shed some light on this!
Interesting, I think i'd have to do a lot of reading to really understand it.
If you ever feel inclined to, Stahl's psychopharmacology is a really good book for this.
It's dense and it will probably be challenging depending on your current level of knowledge of biology/psychology/chemistry but if there's one book that I could recommend for understanding the whole thing in a comprehensive way, it's this one.