That's stretching the definition of "settled." Whatever you call it, the fundamental questions are (1) what is necessary to establish a claim and (2) what is necessary to supersede a claim.
They did not live on the land, use the land, or anything of the sort
If living on the land and using the land is the test for a legitimate claim -- at least where previously uninhabited land is concerned -- Britain has as good of a case as anyone. There weren't permanent settlements on the land (or even consistent use) until they established them in the mid-19th century. Sporadic attempts to make use of the island (first by imperial Spain, then by the settler-colonial state of Argentina) don't strike me as any different from Britain's earlier sporadic attempts to make use of the island. I don't see how one can write off the early British attempts, but count the similar Argentine attempts as legitimate, and then write off the later British settlement that proved to be lasting.
Their only claim to the island and desire for it was geopolitical staging
If tomorrow I land on a previously-uninhabited island in the middle of the Pacific, and along with some other people I "live on the land and use the land," it doesn't matter what our intent is. No one has a better claim to that land than us.
In 1690, the first definite visit to the Falklands (certainly by any country that ever made a claim on the islands) is by a British ship.
In 1764, a French settlement is established -- this would eventually be turned over the the Spanish, and it appeared to top out at a population of 100.
In 1766, a British settlement is established -- nothing about the population, but it apparently contained a small town separate from a garrison.
In 1776, the British military departs, but leaves behind a plaque in an attempt to maintain their claim.
British sealers continue to use the settlement until 1780, when they are forced out by the Spanish (presumably not a legitimate way for Spain to end Britain's claim).
In 1820, we see the first post-independence Argentine contact with the islands, when a privateer under the Argentine flag stays six months to make repairs to his ship. He's greeted and aided by at least one British person, who he found on the island.
No one from Argentina visits the island again until 1824. No settlement is attempted then or on a subsequent visit in 1826, and the 1826 visit proceeds only after obtaining permission from the British consulate in Buenos Aires.
In 1828, Argentina makes an attempt at establishing a settlement, and the leader of the expedition again asks the British consulate for permission.
In 1829, the British complain to Argentina that the leader of the settlement is attempting to regulate seal hunting rights (presumably signaling that British seal hunters have been frequenting the island)
In 1831, the conditions of the settlement are so miserable that when a U.S. ship arrives after a dispute over seized seal hunting ships, most of the settlers take the opportunity to leave. About 24 Argentinians remained.
In 1832, Argentina tries to establish a penal colony. British sealers are still using the islands.
In 1833, Britain expels the Argentine military presence, but none of the civilian/commercial presence. Five members of the settlement are murdered over a wage dispute. The survivors flee and are rescued by a British sealer.
In 1834, there were at least a few indefinite British residents. British presence was continuous from here on out.
By 1841, there was a population of about 50 at the new British colony, which grew to about 200 by 1849, and slowly increased from there.
First, British sealers only left (in 1780) after the Spanish forced them out. I don't see that as legitimately terminating the British claim. Second, British sealers returned in significant numbers right after the Spanish pulled all of their people off the island (in 1811). I see that as continued use of the islands, as well as a sign that the British never willingly gave up their claim. Third, although Argentina visited the island as early 1820 and had a few abortive commercial expeditions in subsequent years, they didn't attempt to establish a settlement until 1828. During this time they were aware of British claims and respected them. And as soon as Argentina challenged those claims (about the time when it began its imperial war of extermination against its indigenous people) Britain responded and formed a permanent settlement.
In short, I don't see Britain ever willingly renouncing its claim, I see Britain using the land near-continuously whenever they were not barred by the Spanish, and I see a halting Argentinian attempt to form a permanent settlement that began by asking the British for permission. At no point does Argentina have a clear claim on the island, and they certainly never have one stronger than Britain's claim.
I thought we had decided that use/settlement of unoccupied land was the touchstone for a legitimate claim on that land. Two colonial powers horsetrading an island doesn't square well with that. Similarly, claims drawn up in Rome by the Pope centuries before anyone regularly used or inhabited the island don't really hold any water.
when Spain took over the settlement by repayment, they pushed the British out
No, Spain coexisted with Britain on the island for years, just as France had coexisted with Britain before that. Spain didn't push out British sealers until four years after the British military left, too. This might suggest a joint claim on the island, or claims on different parts of the island, but it doesn't suggest Spain owned the whole thing outright. There had even been a Spanish/British military confrontation over the matter in 1770, and its resolution left both parties on the island for the next decade.
When Spain relinquished South America because they were overstretched, Argentina claimed land in the area.
If simply declaring a claim on unused, uninhabited land is valid, we're back to Britain having as good of a claim as anyone. What happened to use/settlement being the key factors?
The colonists claiming area that other colonists stayed behind in when the Spanish pulled out
When Spain left in 1811 they pulled out everyone -- military and civilian alike. The only people using or occupying the island at that point were sealers, and they were primarily British and American. If there's a "continued line of ownership through living and working the land," that points to Britain much more than Argentina. After Spain left, no Argentinian visited until 1820, and then there were only a few scattered commercial expeditions until 1828. British sealers had moved (back) in right after Spain pulled out in 1811, and it looks like they were there ever since. They were definitely there for the 1820 Argentine contact and the 1828 settlement attempt.
It's right to be skeptical of that, but I've seen no evidence to suggest otherwise, and not every tiny island has always had people living on it.
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That's stretching the definition of "settled." Whatever you call it, the fundamental questions are (1) what is necessary to establish a claim and (2) what is necessary to supersede a claim.
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If living on the land and using the land is the test for a legitimate claim -- at least where previously uninhabited land is concerned -- Britain has as good of a case as anyone. There weren't permanent settlements on the land (or even consistent use) until they established them in the mid-19th century. Sporadic attempts to make use of the island (first by imperial Spain, then by the settler-colonial state of Argentina) don't strike me as any different from Britain's earlier sporadic attempts to make use of the island. I don't see how one can write off the early British attempts, but count the similar Argentine attempts as legitimate, and then write off the later British settlement that proved to be lasting.
If tomorrow I land on a previously-uninhabited island in the middle of the Pacific, and along with some other people I "live on the land and use the land," it doesn't matter what our intent is. No one has a better claim to that land than us.
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I don't think this is an accurate reading of the history. I'm not pulling this from anywhere obscure:
First, British sealers only left (in 1780) after the Spanish forced them out. I don't see that as legitimately terminating the British claim. Second, British sealers returned in significant numbers right after the Spanish pulled all of their people off the island (in 1811). I see that as continued use of the islands, as well as a sign that the British never willingly gave up their claim. Third, although Argentina visited the island as early 1820 and had a few abortive commercial expeditions in subsequent years, they didn't attempt to establish a settlement until 1828. During this time they were aware of British claims and respected them. And as soon as Argentina challenged those claims (about the time when it began its imperial war of extermination against its indigenous people) Britain responded and formed a permanent settlement.
In short, I don't see Britain ever willingly renouncing its claim, I see Britain using the land near-continuously whenever they were not barred by the Spanish, and I see a halting Argentinian attempt to form a permanent settlement that began by asking the British for permission. At no point does Argentina have a clear claim on the island, and they certainly never have one stronger than Britain's claim.
deleted by creator
I thought we had decided that use/settlement of unoccupied land was the touchstone for a legitimate claim on that land. Two colonial powers horsetrading an island doesn't square well with that. Similarly, claims drawn up in Rome by the Pope centuries before anyone regularly used or inhabited the island don't really hold any water.
No, Spain coexisted with Britain on the island for years, just as France had coexisted with Britain before that. Spain didn't push out British sealers until four years after the British military left, too. This might suggest a joint claim on the island, or claims on different parts of the island, but it doesn't suggest Spain owned the whole thing outright. There had even been a Spanish/British military confrontation over the matter in 1770, and its resolution left both parties on the island for the next decade.
If simply declaring a claim on unused, uninhabited land is valid, we're back to Britain having as good of a claim as anyone. What happened to use/settlement being the key factors?
When Spain left in 1811 they pulled out everyone -- military and civilian alike. The only people using or occupying the island at that point were sealers, and they were primarily British and American. If there's a "continued line of ownership through living and working the land," that points to Britain much more than Argentina. After Spain left, no Argentinian visited until 1820, and then there were only a few scattered commercial expeditions until 1828. British sealers had moved (back) in right after Spain pulled out in 1811, and it looks like they were there ever since. They were definitely there for the 1820 Argentine contact and the 1828 settlement attempt.